CCENT ICND1 Study Guide. Lammle Todd

globals are allowed to use the NAT pool?

      A. debug ip nat

      B. show access-list

      C. show ip nat translation

      D. show ip nat statistics

      14. How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?

      A. 1

      B. 2

      C. 5

      D. 12

      15. Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco router?

      A. line telnet 0 4

      B. line aux 0 4

      C. line vty 0 4

      D. line con 0

      16. Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?

      A. show all access-lists

      B. show access-lists

      C. show ip interface

      D. show interface

      17. What does a VLAN do?

      A. Acts as the fastest port to all servers

      B. Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port

      C. Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork

      D. Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain

      18. If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, choose the best answer for the Cisco objectives.

      A. erase startup

      B. delete running

      C. erase flash

      D. erase running

      19. Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts?

      A. TCP

      B. ARP

      C. ICMP

      D. BootP

      20. Which class of IP address provides 15 bits for subnetting?

      A. A

      B. B

      C. C

      D. D

      21. There are three possible routes for a router to reach a destination network. The first route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The second route is from RIPv2 with a metric of 4. The third is from EIGRP with a composite metric of 20514560. Which route will be installed by the router in its routing table?

      A. RIPv2

      B. EIGRP

      C. OSPF

      D. All three

      22. Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?

      A. Two VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches.

      B. VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand switches are allowed.

      C. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.

      D. You need to have a trunk link configured between switches in order to send information about more than one VLAN down the link.

      23. How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?

      A. 1

      B. 2

      C. 5

      D. 12

      24. What protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch? (Choose two.)

      A. VLAN Trunking Protocol

      B. VLAN

      C. 802.1q

      D. ISL

      25. What is a stub network?

      A. A network with more than one exit point

      B. A network with more than one exit and entry point

      C. A network with only one entry and no exit point

      D. A network that has only one entry and exit point

      26. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?

      A. Session layer

      B. Physical layer

      C. Data Link layer

      D. Application layer

      27. What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose two.)

      A. Standard

      B. IEEE

      C. Extended

      D. Specialized

      28. Which of the following is the best summarization of the following networks: 192.168.128.0 through 192.168.159.0?

      A. 192.168.0.0/24

      B. 192.168.128.0/16

      C. 192.168.128.0/19

      D. 192.168.128.0/20

      29. What command is used to create a backup configuration?

      A. copy running backup

      B. copy running-config startup-config

      C. config mem

      D. wr net

      30. 1000Base-T is which IEEE standard?

      A. 802.3f

      B. 802.3z

      C. 802.3ab

      D. 802.3ae

      Answers to Assessment Test

      1. C. 2100 boots the router into ROM monitor mode, 2101 loads the mini-IOS from ROM, and 2102 is the default and loads the IOS from flash. See Chapter 8 for more information.

      2. D. The show license udi command displays the unique device identifier (UDI) of the router, which comprises the product ID (PID) and serial number of the router. See Chapter 8 for more information.

      3. B. The show license feature command allows you to view the technology package licenses and feature licenses that are supported on your router along with several status variables related to software activation and licensing, both licensed and unlicensed features. See Chapter 8 for more information.

      4. B. There are eight different trap levels. If you choose, for example, level 3, level 0 through level 3 messages will be displayed. See Chapter 8 for more information.

      5. B. This can be a hard question if you don’t remember to invert the 7th bit of the first octet in the MAC address! Always look for the 7th bit when studying for the Cisco R/S, and when using eui-64, invert it. The eui-64 autoconfiguration then inserts an FF: FE in the middle of the 48-bit MAC address to create a unique IPv6 address. See Chapter 14 for more information.

      6. A. The NDP neighbor advertisement (NA) contains the MAC address. A neighbor solicitation (NS) was initially sent asking for the MAC address. See Chapter 14 for more information.

      7. B. Each field in an IPv6 address is 16 bits long. An IPv6 address has eight fields for a total of 128 bits. See Chapter 14 for more information.

      8. C. The command line console 0 places you at a prompt where you can then set your console user-mode password. See Chapter 6 for more information.

      9. B, D. The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses